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  2. Original Word: δακρύω. Part of Speech: Verb. Transliteration: dakruó. Phonetic Spelling: (dak-roo'-o) Definition: to weep. Usage: I shed tears, weep. HELPS Word-studies. 1145 dakrýō (from 1144 /dákry, "tear-drop") – properly, to shed quiet (actual) tears; to weep silently (with tears). Copyright © 2021 by Discovery Bible.

  3. John 11:35 Greek Text Analysis - Bible Hub

    biblehub.com/text/john/11-35.htm

    John 11:33 When Jesus therefore saw her weeping, and the Jews also weeping which … Genesis 43:30 And Joseph made haste; for his bowels did yearn on his brother: and … Job 30:25 Did not I weep for him that was in trouble? was not my soul grieved …

  4. In John 11:32, 33, it is Mary's obvious grief that moved Jesus; Jesus was "deeply moved in his spirit and was troubled in himself" (my translation). Thus, John's use of ἐμβριμάομαι (embrimaomai) appears to be emotionally internal; while Matthew and Mark use the same verb in an attempt to convey deeply felt passion to others.

  5. The Important Meaning Behind "Jesus Wept" - Bible Study Tools

    www.biblestudytools.com/bible-study/topical-studies/short-and-sweet-why-its-so...

    What Does it Mean that 'Jesus Wept'? The direct meaning of this verse is simple, when He went to the tomb of Lazarus , He shed tears. Its deeper implications touch on the complicated nature of Jesus Christ.

  6. What does it mean to groan in the spirit (John 11:33)? - ...

    www.gotquestions.org/groan-in-the-spirit.html

    The Greek word for “groaned in the spirit” (embrimaomai) is used in four other places in the New Testament, each time of Jesus (Matthew 9:30; Mark 1:43; 14:5; John 11:38). It expresses outrage and indignation.

  7. In John 11:35 how and why did Jesus weep?

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/1635

    The Greek word is δακρύω; it means to shed tears. The New Linguistic and Exegetical Key to the Greek New Testament suggests that the aorist here is inceptive: i.e. "he burst into tears." He was sobbing; it was full out weeping.

  8. What does John 11:35 mean? - BibleRef.com

    www.bibleref.com/John/11/John-11-35.html

    Jesus is about to resurrect His good friend, bringing Lazarus back to his sisters and family. In the meantime, He weeps, sharing their pain and their sorrow. This response is described using a Greek term implying quiet tears, in contrast to the "wailing" described from the other mourners.

  9. John 11:35 Multilingual: Jesus wept. - Bible Hub

    biblehub.com/multi/john/11-35.htm

    Johannes 11:35 Dutch Staten Vertaling. Jezus weende. Nestle Greek New Testament 1904. ἐδάκρυσεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς. Westcott and Hort 1881. ἐδάκρυσεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς. Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] ἐδάκρυσεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς. RP Byzantine Majority Text 2005.

  10. JESUS WEPT - Why Did Jesus Weep? - Bible Study Online

    www.bibleversestudy.com/johngospel/john11-jesus-wept.htm

    What is meant by "Jesus wept"? εδακρυσεν (edakrusen) means “to tear up in the eye” or “to shed tears.” By contrast, the Greek verb translated "weeping" in John 11:33 for the others is κλαιοντας (klaiontas) , which means “to wail.”

  11. John 11:33. What was Jesus troubled about?

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/47952

    The Greek words used in the text: He groaned in the spirit and was troubled mean that he was experiencing indignation and was agitated. He was not mourning. He was frustrated that the people who had heard all that he had said, had still not understood.